MS Access Copyright

Hello,  

I am new to this forum. Thanks for having me.  

I've tried to find an answer to my dilemma, but have not been able to receive anything definitive.  

My question is this:  

If Company 'A' creates a Software Application, in MS Access, for Company 'B' at the request of Company B, and on Company B's premises, using Company B's equipment, Does the Copyright belong to Company A or to Company B?  

There is no written agreement, e.g. - Work-for-Hire. There was a verbal agreement between Company A and Company B (CEO, an Administrator and Tech Consultant)  

Please let me know your reasoning as well.  

Thanks very much in advance.  

Carmine Poliandro Received on Wed Aug 13 2003 - 06:41:34 GMT