Re: MS Access Copyright

A verbal agreement may be enforceable. However, absent any enforceable agreement, since this appears to NOT be a work-for-hire situation, it is the author who likely owns the copyright.

-Bodi

• Original Message ----- From: "Carmine Poliandro" <Carminep[_at_]ceigroup.com> To: "CNI-COPYRIGHT -- Copyright & Intellectual Property" <CNI-COPYRIGHT[_at_]cni.org> Sent: Tuesday, August 12, 2003 10:41 PM Subject: [CNI-(C)] MS Access Copyright

Hello,

I am new to this forum. Thanks for having me.

I've tried to find an answer to my dilemma, but have not been able to receive anything definitive.

My question is this:

If Company 'A' creates a Software Application, in MS Access, for Company 'B' at the request of Company B, and on Company B's premises, using Company B's equipment, Does the Copyright belong to Company A or to Company B?

There is no written agreement, e.g. - Work-for-Hire. There was a verbal agreement between Company A and Company B (CEO, an Administrator and Tech Consultant)

Please let me know your reasoning as well.

Thanks very much in advance.

Carmine Poliandro Received on Thu Aug 14 2003 - 09:30:29 GMT