What is the present situation with regard to copyrights in musical
recordings reverting to recording artists (in particular, songs recording in
the 1960s)? Assume that the group that recorded the song was a contractor to
the record company (notwithstanding what the contract may have said about
work-made-for-hire), and the song was a national hit in 1966. The artists
never received any royalties for the work, and since they did not write the
underlying composition, they were not entitled to royalties from that,
either.
Mike Phillips Received on Tue Aug 19 2003 - 19:55:14 GMT
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