>I have an interesting situation in which the part-owner of a company
>(we'll call him Bob) created a work subject to copyright protection
>intended for use by the company. Bob was employed elsewhere and
>drew no salary or benefits from the company he owned. He created
>the work and gave it to his company to use. Work made for hire?
>Assignment? Case law?
>
There's ton of caselaw. My initial reaction is that he gave the company a copy of his software and an implied license to use it, which should be revocable.
John Noble Received on Mon Apr 11 2005 - 22:50:59 GMT
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