Assume that Company hires Designer (without a written agreement) to create a
brilliantly artistic logo. Company files an Intent to Use application to
federally register the trademark in the US. Designer files an application to
register the copyright in the design and sends Company a bill for the
creation. Company refuses to pay the exorbitant price. PTO issues a Notice
of Allowance. How can Company use the mark in commerce and subsequently file
an Affidavit of Use without infringing Designer's copyright?
Mike Phillips
>-----Original Message-----
>From: CNI-COPYRIGHT -- Copyright & Intellectual Property
>[mailto:CNI-COPYRIGHT[_at_]cni.org]On Behalf Of David Post
>Sent: Monday, May 01, 2006 12:56 PM
>To: CNI-COPYRIGHT -- Copyright & Intellectual Property
>Subject: [CNI-(C)] Re: [CNI-(C)] Re: Copyright Vs Trademarks
>
>
>At 17.25 28/04/2006 Friday -0400, Vance R. Koven wrote:
>>My followup question to this thread is whether ownership of the
>>trademark is worth anything if the trademark owner can't make any use
>>of the thing trademarked without permission of the copyright owner. If
>>the copyright owner won't license the trademark owner, and vice versa,
>>is there a complete standoff?
>
>But this dilemma can't, logically, occur -- you don't get any
>trademark rights at all without using the trademark in commerce; so
>if you haven't distributed something (because, for instance, you
>don't have the rights necessary to do so), you can't have a trademark
>in the name you would like to use in the event that you were able to
>distribute it.
>David
>
>*********
>David Post -- Professor, Temple Law School [on leave of absence,
>spring 2006]
>Postd[_at_]erols.com
>Bologna Blog: http://home.earthlink.net/~dcastronuovo/id5.html
>Papers, etc.: http://www.davidpost.com
>Volokh Conspiracy http://volokh.com
>Support open access: http://www.plos.org
>*********
>
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Received on Tue May 02 2006 - 02:15:15 GMT
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