Well, (1) is a tautology, unless I'm misreading you. (2) and (3) are
correct, but don't take you very far analytically, since they're true
of any cause of action, no?
As Steve Jamar said, the practical outfall of the difference between "defense" and "exception to exclusive rights" is negligible. It is, however, good fodder for us nitpickers.
On 11/1/06, Michael Graham <mgraham[_at_]marshallip.com> wrote:
> Perhaps a better terminology would be (1) violation of the Sections 106
> and/or 106A rights constitues violation of these rights, (2) in the
> absence of "fair use" (or other defense) this violation concsitutes
> infringement, but (3) upon proof of "fair use" (or other defense) the
> violation does not constitute actionable infringement.
>
-- Vance R. Koven Boston, MA USA vrkoven[_at_]world.std.comReceived on Thu Nov 02 2006 - 04:15:01 GMT
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.2.0 : Mon Mar 26 2007 - 00:35:57 GMT