Don Berman writes:
>
Section 106 provides all sorts of exclusive rights to the copyright owner, but it still allows state contract law to shift ownership to one other than the original author. Why would the same thing not work with fair use? I.e., if an author can sell a copyright, why cannot a user sell a fair use right?
--Trotter Hardy
+------------------------+-------------------------------+ | thardy[_at_]mail.wm.edu | Prof. I. Trotter Hardy | | Voice: (804) 221-3826 | Marshall-Wythe School of Law | | Fax: (804) 221-3261 | College of William & Mary | | BBS: (804) 221-1137 | Williamsburg, VA 23187 | +------------------------+-------------------------------+Received on Thu Apr 14 1994 - 20:43:03 GMT
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