I have been following this discussion and thinking about what everyone
has been saying. I've also had some private side discussions on the
issue. I think I have come to the conclusion that there is a definite
parallel between our current discussion concerning whether or not fair
use can be modified by contract and our earlier discussion concerning
the basis of copyright. It appears to me that those who favored an
author's property right as the basis tend to believe that fair use
can be waived by contract. Those who favored production of works for
the use of society as the primary basis tend to believe that fair
use probably cannot be eliminated by contract. Any comments?
sigSsssa Received on Tue Apr 26 1994 - 02:19:05 GMT
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