>I wrote:
>>If we let them [copyright owners] avoid copyright law by contract, what is
>>the point of having copyright rules such as fair use, first sale, etc. in
>>the first place? Are all copyright statutes just default rules to be
>>applied in the unlikely case that the copyright owner does not require
>>buyers to sign a contract? Why not explicitly say "the copyright owner
>>has the exclusive right to his work, and other parties have to bargain
>>for any rights they want."
Nic Herriges replies:
>
>There are a number of situations where the law has provided "default"
>settings for transactions. The UCC comes most immediately and strongly to
>mind (Uniform Commercial Code for non-lawyer and non-US folks). The UCC
>provides a statutory framework for a number of different types of
>commercial transactions. The parties are free (within limits such as
>contracts of adhesion, etc.) to change these rules by contract. This seems
>to provide a fairly decent balance between fairness and flexibility and is
>a good way to minimize transaction costs.
>
>I don't have any hard figures but my gut tells me that 90+% of all
>copyright materials that change hands does so without benefit of a signed
>contract (books, shareware, videos, albums, etc.). Even if you consider
>shrinkwrap licenses as a contract that number probably doesn't go below
>80+%. It's been my experience that only in a *very* limited number of
>circumstances will people go to the effort of changing the rules of
>copyright with a written contract.
>
>The change you suggest would drastically increase the transaction costs for
>all of those situations where fair use and the like are important but other
>issues did not already justify the cost of an agreement.
Maybe we shouldn't be bothered by the coming obsolescence of copyright. But I for one would like a good, long look at what will replace it.
Mark Lemley
Assistant Professor
University of Texas School of Law
mlemley[_at_]mail.law.utexas.edu
Received on Tue Dec 06 1994 - 16:49:30 GMT
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