Mark Lemley wrote:
>
> If we let them [copyright owners] avoid copyright law by contract,
> what is the point of having copyright rules such as fair use, first
> sale, etc. in the first place? Are all copyright statutes just
> default rules to be applied in the unlikely case that the copyright
> owner does not require buyers to sign a contract?
Buford Terrell wrote:
>
> On a more technical ground, contract law is probably preempted if
> it tries to create greater rights in the copyright holder or decrease
> the rights of the purchaser than are established in the federal statute.
Forgive me for rehashing what was already dicussed in the preemption thread some time ago, but I thought we'd agreed that one *can* contract around at least the first sale doctrine. The legislative history seemed pretty definite on that -- the contract is enforceable against those in privity.
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