>David McConville writes (in part):
>
>However, if the NII's IPWG's proposals are made into law, this would
>no longer be the case (at least for digital broadcasts), right? The
>Working Group proposed that ALL digital transactions be considered
>reproductions . . .
Isn't that true already? If I use a computer to make one (or 1000) copies of a sound recording, I don't think it requires any change in the copyright laws to say that I have infringed.
Yes, this is a change from analog broadcast technology, where the sound was simply "passed through" a radio receiver. But the fact that computers make copies of everything is what causes the result to change, as far as I can tell.
Mark Lemley
Assistant Professor
University of Texas School of Law
mlemley[_at_]mail.law.utexas.edu
Received on Fri Dec 30 1994 - 15:45:55 GMT
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