> The Berne Convention makes copyright notice unnecessary, but what
> happens these days if a publisher reprints a work and includes a
> notice that has the current year instead of the original year of
> publication? Does it matter if the original year of publication
> predates 1988?
I think it does matter. I would call this intentionally false and misleading. My memory is that you can be a year or so off without the ceiling falling in on you, but not really more.
> The specifics: some companies publish musical settings to liturgical
> texts on a three-year cycle. I recently noticed in one book that the
> copyright notice on each week's setting listed the current year,
> despite the fact that the music (both melody and arrangment) is
> identical to the music from three (and six) years ago (or only
> marginally modified). I don't have the books from nine years ago --
> that's before I became involved in our choir.
I guess I should ask whether each piece of music has a separate notice.
> So, my question is, is this publisher causing itself trouble, or
> merely being unethical?
I think the answer is that the two are interrelated.
Bruce E. Hayden bhayden[_at_]acm.org Austin, Texas bhayden[_at_]copatlaw.comReceived on Fri Oct 20 1995 - 13:06:51 GMT
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