Does U.S. and foreign copyright law have contradictory goals?

From: <johnl[_at_]ibm.net>
Date: Mon, 16 Sep 96 20:44:38 -0400

Assume for the moment the following:

That U.S. Copyright law does not have as its goal establishing property rights for authors or distributors. Assume instead that its primary purpose is to ensure maximum public access to ideas and works. To the extent that authors are granted a monopoly it is as a means to that end.

Would that goal be at cross purposes with the goals that other countries see for copyright law? I note that most European materials that I have seen on copyright stress the author's rights as the end goal of copyright.

(I realize that events of th last decade or two may suggest that my
assumption about U.S. copyright's goals may not seem accurate. I think though it is what the Constitution had in mind)  

Regards,

John Lederer
<johnl[_at_]ibm.net>

Oregon, Wisconsin
(Using Merlin--and liking it)
Received on Tue Sep 17 1996 - 01:44:58 GMT

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