"impliedly"

From: Pat McNees <103250.2371[_at_]CompuServe.COM>
Date: 31 May 97 12:22:19 EDT

Pardon a language question from a non-lawyer, but something has puzzled me: A number of people on this listserv have said something was done "impliedly" instead of "implicitly." Is there a legal reason for doing so?

   Pat McNees
   (a writer-editor)
   <103250.2371[_at_]compuserve.com> Received on Sat May 31 1997 - 16:29:38 GMT

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