Re: "impliedly"

John Allison <allisonj[_at_]mail.utexas.edu> writes:
>
> Although it is a language misusage, it developed as a customary term in
> the law many years ago.

The old OED lists both "impliedly" and "implicitly" as acceptable adverbs. They are roughly synonomous (anyone care to distinguish the meanings, my pocket OED is not sufficiently verbose?). I presume the legal usage stems from the fact that we talk about "implied contracts" and "implied terms" rather than "implicit contracts".  

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