I'd like to have an opinion regarding this hypothetical: There are two owners for a given trademark, owner A having rights in XYZ countries, and owner B having rights to the trademark in countries UVW. Now, owner A opens an internet site to allow countries XYZ to have access/use of the trademark. Can owner B sue owner A for infringement if a person from countries UVW is thereby allowed to access the trademark?
I'd really appreciate any comments!
Larissa Lambino
<larissa[_at_]skyinet.net>
Received on Sun Jul 06 1997 - 08:42:01 GMT
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