Carlos de Miguel <ectil06[_at_]sis.ucm.es> wrote:
>
> I know a person that made translations of some articles of a magazine.
>
> Do you think that if she buys any samples of the suitable sample of
> the magazine, she could sell a copy of the corresponding translation?
> Maybe one copy per sample?
>
> Anyone can buy any publication, and with the purchase, he obtains
> implicitly a licence to use it. But the content of the licence is
> not generally delimited.
>
> There is usually an notice of copyright, but
>
> - does this mean that the not-mentioned-actions in the notice are
> permitted, and so this is the content of the licence? (the
> transformation or translation of the work is not mention as
> prohibited, so we could take it as permitted)
>
> - or the notice is just a warning, and the content of the license
> is delimited by custom?
>
> For example. She can give the magazine away, and even getting the
> prize she paid for it: can she give it with its translation, and
> purchase a prize for the translation? Who receives the review, is
> allowed (in many countries) to do copies for private use; do you
> think that he can also make or obtain a translation, for private
> use? Will not he be allowed to ask somebody to make a translation
> for him?
The answers to these questions depend on copyright law which is national (not internationl) law, and thus it is the copyright law of the country in questions which will govern IMHO.
As I am not your lawyer, and you are not my client, this is not legal advice but merely idle chit chat, for which I assume no professional responsibility.
Martin
Martin Perlberger
<mpesq[_at_]perlberger.com>
Received on Wed Jul 23 1997 - 22:46:44 GMT
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