On 01/17/99, Bob Stock <bstock[_at_]attymail.com> wrote:
>
> The newsgroup misc.legal.moderated had a short discussion about
> whether the phrase "all rights reserved," when used in a copyright
> notice, is currently necessary under any country's laws. If not,
> are there historical reasons for its use?
>
> Here's a copyright notice pulled (at random) from one of Mark Lemley's
> articles:
>
> Copyright Mark A. Lemley (1995).
>
> Here's one from Dan Burk:
>
> Copyright 1993 by Dan L. Burk. All rights reserved.
>
>
> Doesn't Dan's look more impressive? But is it? :-)
Isn't the "all rights reserved" language used to comply with the Buenos Aires Convention (1910), which states (Art. 3) that "the acknowledgement of a copyright obtained in one State, in conformity with its laws, shall produce its effects of full rights in all the other States without the necessity of complying with any other formality, provided always there shall appear in the work a statement that indicates *the reserveration of the property right.*" (emphasis added)?
Gloria C. Phares
gcphares[_at_]pbwt.com
Received on Tue Jan 19 1999 - 20:18:24 GMT
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